(Seen on Facebook)
Perplexed about all the concern from some quarters about gay sex / marriage. Speculating that those fulminating against it spend more time doing that than having sex themselves. Could be the real problem. . . .
Exactly how much sex does a person need to have before they’re capable of making an ethical judgment call on that? Is that a sliding scale? Or could it be that this person has gone and made the usual category fallacy and treated SSM as a simple matter of “morals are nothing more than personal preference?”
Or better yet, let’s take that same reasoning and apply it to anything else. Perhaps if the people who speak out about abortion had more abortions, then they wouldn’t worry about them as much. Or those who vigorously oppose drunk driving should just go and spend a fair amount of time driving drunk and they won’t have such a hangup with it.
But to take this ‘argument’ through to its absurd conclusion, if both a virgin and non-virgin come to the same conclusion about same-sex marriage, and conclude it is both immoral and against the best interest of those individuals and the interest of the state to regulate the institution of marriage, is one person’s conclusion less valid than the other? If so, why? If not, why not? And if not, does the amount of sex a person has had have any impact on their ability to make a reasoned moral judgment about the matter?
Why should I consider this anything other than an ad-hominem attack on those who did not agree with the person who said that?